Updated Apr 11, 2024 Certification Exam CRISC Dumps - Practice Test Questions
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The CRISC certification exam is a comprehensive exam that covers four domains: Risk identification, Assessment, Response, and Monitoring. CRISC exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions and takes four hours to complete. The passing score for the exam is 450 out of 800 points. CRISC exam is available in English and is administered at Prometric testing centers worldwide.
The CRISC certification is globally recognized and is highly valued by employers. It is considered a leading credential for IT professionals who are looking to advance their careers in risk management and IT governance. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification demonstrates the candidate's expertise in assessing and managing risks associated with IT systems, infrastructure, and software. CRISC certification holders are in high demand and are well-compensated for their skills and expertise in the IT risk management field.
NEW QUESTION # 36
After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:
- A. validate the risk scenarios for business applicability
- B. reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set
- C. perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios
- D. record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?
- A. Directives from legal and regulatory authorities
- B. Automated logs collected from different systems
- C. Trend analysis of external risk factors
- D. Audit reports from internal information systems audits
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 38
An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:
- A. increased inherent risk.
- B. higher risk management cost
- C. lower risk management cost.
- D. decreased residual risk.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 39
The BEST control to mitigate the risk associated with project scope creep is to:
- A. ensure extensive user involvement
- B. deploy CASE tools in software development
- C. apply change management procedures
- D. consult with senior management on a regular basis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following processes addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget?
- A. Qualitative Risk Analysis
- B. Explanation:
The plan risk response project management process aims to reduce the threats to the project objectives and to increase opportunities. It follows the perform qualitative risk analysis process and perform quantitative risk analysis process. Plan risk response process includes the risk response owner to take the job for each agreed-to and funded risk response. This process addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget. The inputs to the plan risk response process are as follows: Risk register Risk management plan - C. Identify Risks
- D. Plan risk response
- E. is incorrect. Identify Risks is the process of determining which risks may affect the project. It also documents risks' characteristics. The Identify Risks process is part of the Project Risk Management knowledge area. As new risks may evolve or become known as the project progresses through its life cycle, Identify Risks is an iterative process. The process should involve the project team so that they can develop and maintain a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risks and associated risk response actions. Risk Register is the only output of this process. Answer: A is incorrect. Monitor and Control Risk is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risk, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk
process effectiveness throughout the project. It can involve choosing alternative strategies,
executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project
management plan. - F. Monitor and Control Risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Qualitative analysis is the definition of risk factors in terms of
high/medium/low or a numeric scale (1 to 10). Hence it determines the nature of risk on a relative
scale.
Some of the qualitative methods of risk analysis are:
Scenario analysis- This is a forward-looking process that can reflect risk for a given point in time.
Risk Control Self -assessment (RCSA) - RCSA is used by enterprises (like banks) for the
identification and evaluation of operational risk exposure. It is a logical first step and assumes that
business owners and managers are closest to the issues and have the most expertise as to the
source of the risk. RCSA is a constructive process in compelling business owners to contemplate,
and then explain, the issues at hand with the added benefit of increasing their accountability.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Wendy has identified a risk event in her project that has an impact of $75,000 and a 60 percent chance of happening. Through research, her project team learns that the risk impact can actually be reduced to just
$15,000 with only a ten percent chance of occurring. The proposed solution will cost $25,000. Wendy agrees to the $25,000 solution. What type of risk response is this?
- A. Transference
- B. Mitigation
- C. Avoidance
- D. Enhancing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Risk mitigation implies a reduction in the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk event to be within acceptable threshold limits. Taking early actions to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk occurring on the project is often more effective than trying to repair the damage after the risk has occurred.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Avoidance changes the project plan to avoid the risk altogether.
C: Transference requires shifting some or all of the negative impacts of a threat, along with the ownership of the response, to a third party. Transferring the risk simply gives another party the responsibility for its management-it does not eliminate it.
Transferring the liability for a risk is most effective in dealing with financial risk exposure. Risk transference nearly always involves payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.
D: Enhancing is actually a positive risk response. This strategy is used to increase the probability and/or the positive impact of an opportunity. Identifying and maximizing the key drivers of these positive-impact risks may increase the probability of their occurrence.
NEW QUESTION # 42
After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?
- A. The control owner
- B. The risk owner
- C. The risk practitioner
- D. The business process owner
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 43
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are preparing for the risk identification process. You will need to involve several of the project's key stakeholders to help you identify and communicate the identified risk events. You will also need several documents to help you and the stakeholders identify the risk events.
Which one of the following is NOT a document that will help you identify and communicate risks within the project?
- A. Stakeholder registers
- B. Activity duration estimates
- C. Risk register
- D. Activity cost estimates
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Risk register is not an input to risk identification, but it is an output of risk identification.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These are an input to risk identification.
Identify Risks is the process of determining which risks may affect the project. It also documents risks' characteristics. The Identify Risks process is part of the Project Risk Management knowledge area. As new risks may evolve or become known as the project progresses through its life cycle, Identify Risks is an iterative process. The process should involve the project team so that they can develop and maintain a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risks and associated risk response actions. Risk Register is the only output of this process.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?
- A. Lack of a mature records management program
- B. Incomplete asset inventory
- C. Decentralized asset lists
- D. Lack of a dedicated asset management team
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 45
What are the requirements of effectively communicating risk analysis results to the relevant stakeholders? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
- A. Explanation:
The result of risk analysis process is being communicated to relevant stakeholders. The steps that are involved in communication are: The results should be reported in terms and formats that are useful to support business decisions. Coordinate additional risk analysis activity as required by decision makers, like report rejection and scope adjustment. Communicate the risk-return context clearly, which include probabilities of loss and/or gain, ranges, and confidence levels (if possible) that enable management to balance risk-return. Identify the negative impacts of events that drive response decisions as well as positive impacts of events that represent opportunities which should channel back into the strategy and objective setting process. Provide decision makerswith an understanding of worst-case and most probable scenarios, due diligence exposures and significant reputation, legal or regulatory considerations. - B. Communicate only the negative risk impacts of events in order to drive response decisions
- C. Communicate the risk-return context clearly
- D. Provide decision makers with an understanding of worst-case and most probable scenarios
- E. The results should be reported in terms and formats that are useful to support business decisions
Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Both the negative and positive risk impacts are being communicated to relevant stakeholders. Identify the negative impacts of events that drive response decisions as well as positive impacts of events that represent opportunities which should channel back into the strategy and objective setting process.
NEW QUESTION # 46
An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?
- A. Acceptance
- B. Transfer
- C. Mitigation
- D. Avoidance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?
- A. A performance measurement
- B. Occurrences of specific events
- C. The risk tolerance level
- D. Risk scenarios
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 48
Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?
- A. Risk owner
- B. System owner
- C. Data owner
- D. Control owner
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 49
From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:
- A. performance evaluation.
- B. solution delivery.
- C. strategic alignment.
- D. resource utilization.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following characteristics of risk controls can be defined as under?
"The separation of controls in the production environment rather than the separation in the design and implementation of the risk"
- A. Distinct
- B. Secure
- C. Trusted source
- D. Independent
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A control or countermeasure which does not overlap in its performance with another control or countermeasure is considered as distinct. Hence the separation of controls in the production environment rather than the separation in the design and implementation of the risk refers to distinct.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Trusted source refers to the commitment of the people designing, implementing, and maintenance of the control towards the security policy.
B: Secure controls refers to the activities ability to protect from exploitation or attack.
D: The separation in design, implementation, and maintenance of controls or countermeasures are refer to as independent. Hence this answer is not valid.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Mary is a project manager in her organization. On her current project she is working with her project team and other key stakeholders to identify the risks within the project. She is currently aiming to create a comprehensive list of project risks so she is using a facilitator to help generate ideas about project risks. What risk identification method is Mary likely using?
- A. Checklist analysis
- B. Expert judgment
- C. Brainstorming
- D. Delphi Techniques
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Mary is using brainstorming in this example. Brainstorming attempts to create a comprehensive list of risks and often is led by a moderator or facilitator to move the process along.
Brainstorming is a technique to gather general data. It can be used to identify risks, ideas, or solutions to issues by using a group of team members or subject-matter expert. Brainstorming is a group creativity technique that also provides other benefits, such as boosting morale, enhancing work enjoyment, and improving team work.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Delphi technique uses rounds of anonymous surveys to generate a consensus on the identified risks.
B: Expert judgment is not the best answer for this; projects experts generally do the risk identification, in addition to the project team.
D: Checklist analysis uses historical information and information from similar projects within the organization's experience.
NEW QUESTION # 52
You are the project manager of HJT project. You want to measure the operational effectiveness of risk management capabilities. Which of the following is the BEST option to measure the operational effectiveness?
- A. Key risk indicators
- B. Capability maturity models
- C. Key performance indicators
- D. Metric thresholds
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Key performance indicators are a set of quantifiable measures that a company or industry uses to gauge or compare performance in terms of meeting their strategic and operational goals. Key performance indicators (KPIs) provide insights into the operational effectiveness of the concept or capability that they monitor.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Key risk Indicators (KRIs) only provide insights into potential risks that may exist or be realized within a concept or capability that they monitor.
B: Capability maturity models (CMMs) assess the maturity of a concept or capability and do not provide insights into operational effectiveness.
D: Metric thresholds are decision or action points that are enacted when a KPI or KRI reports a specific value or set of values.
NEW QUESTION # 53
To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?
- A. Inherent and residual risk
- B. Compliance objectives
- C. Organizational objectives
- D. Risk appetite of the organization
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following activities is PRIMARILY the responsibility of senior management?
- A. Bottom-up identification of emerging risks
- B. Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy
- C. Prioritization of risk scenarios based on severity
- D. Review of external loss data
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following approaches to bring your own device (BYOD) service delivery provides the BEST protection from data loss?
- A. Enforce strong passwords and data encryption
- B. Penetration testing and session timeouts
- C. Implement remote monitoring
- D. Enable data wipe capabilities
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 56
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ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) exam is a certification exam designed for professionals who have expertise in the risk management and information systems control fields. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is a globally recognized standard for individuals who are responsible for identifying, assessing, and evaluating the risks associated with information systems. The CRISC certification is intended for individuals who work in large organizations, including government agencies, financial institutions, and other public and private sector organizations.
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