TestValid CSSLP Real Exam Question Answers Updated [Oct 10, 2024]
Easily To Pass New ISC CSSLP Dumps with 349 Questions
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The duration of this exam is 4 hours.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following ISO standards is entitled as "Information technology - Security techniques Information security management - Measurement"?
- A. ISO 27005
- B. ISO 27003
- C. ISO 27004
- D. ISO 27006
Answer: C
Explanation:
ISO 27004 is an information security standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is entitled as "Information technology - Security techniques - Information security management Measurement". The ISO 27004 standard provides guidelines on specifications and use of measurement techniques for the assessment of the effectiveness of an implemented information security management system and controls. It also helps an organization in establishing the effectiveness of ISMS implementation, embracing benchmarking, and performance targeting within the PDCA (plan-do-check-act) cycle. Answer A is incorrect. ISO 27003 is entitled as "Information Technology - Security techniques - Information security management system implementation guidance". Answer B is incorrect. ISO 27005 is entitled as "ISO/IEC 27005:2008 Information technology -- Security techniques -- Information security risk management". Answer D is incorrect. ISO 27006 is entitled as "Information technology - Security techniques - Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of information security management systems".
NEW QUESTION # 34
Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. What activities are performed in the Continuous Monitoring process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system
- B. Security accreditation decision
- C. Status reporting and documentation
- D. Security accreditation documentation
- E. Configuration management and control
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. The Continuous Monitoring process consists of the following three main activities: Configuration management and control Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system Status reporting and documentation The objective of these tasks is to observe and evaluate the information system security controls during the system life cycle. These tasks determine whether the changes that have occurred will negatively impact the system security. Answer A and C are incorrect. Security accreditation decision and security accreditation documentation are the two tasks of the security accreditation phase.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization's loss from a single threat. Which of the following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?
- A. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF)
- B. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF)
- C. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
- D. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Risk Management and Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) where the Exposure Factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. As an example, if the Asset Value is reduced two thirds, the exposure factor value is .66. If the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. The result is a monetary value in the same unit as the Single Loss Expectancy is expressed. AnswerC, D, and B are incorrect. These are not valid formulas of SLE.
NEW QUESTION # 36
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
- A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
- B. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives.
- C. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
- D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It is performed on risk that have been prioritized through the qualitative risk analysis process. AnswerA is incorrect. This is actually the definition of qualitative risk analysis. Answer:
B is incorrect. While somewhat true, this statement does not completely define the quantitative risk analysis process. AnswerC is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the quantitative risk analysis process. Risk response planning is a separate project management process.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following methods does the Java Servlet Specification v2.4 define in the HttpServletRequest interface that control programmatic security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. getRemoteUser()
- B. getCallerIdentity()
- C. getUserPrincipal()
- D. isUserInRole()
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The various methods of the HttpServletRequest interface are as follows: getRemoteUser(): It returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. isUserInRole(): It determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. getUserPrincipal(): It determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated.
Answer A is incorrect. It is not defined in the
HttpServletRequest interface. The getCallerIdentity() method is used to obtain the java.security.Identity of the caller.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following are examples of the application programming interface (API)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. .NET
- B. PHP
- C. Perl
- D. HTML
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Perl, .NET, and PHP are examples of the application programming interface (API). API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools that users can use to work with a component, application, or operating system. It consists of one or more DLLs that provide specific functionality. API helps in reducing the development time of applications by reducing application code. Most operating environments, such as MS- Windows, provide an API so that programmers can write applications consistent with the operating environment. Answer: A is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following vulnerabilities occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions?
- A. Insecure cryptographic storage
- B. Injection flaw
- C. Malicious file execution
- D. Insecure communication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Malicious file execution is a vulnerability that occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions. This leads to arbitrary remote and hostile data being included, processed, and invoked by the Web server. Malicious file execution can be prevented by using an indirect object reference map, input validation, or explicit taint checking mechanism. Answer D is incorrect. Injection flaw occurs when data is sent to an interpreter as a part of command or query. Answer A is incorrect. Insecure cryptographic storage occurs when applications have failed to encrypt data. Answer C is incorrect. Insecure communication occurs when applications have failed to encrypt network traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following phases of DITSCAP includes the activities that are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its computing environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle?
- A. Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase
- B. Phase 3, Validation
- C. Phase 1, Definition
- D. Phase 2, Verification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase, of the DITSCAP includes the activities that are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its computing environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle. Answer C is incorrect. Phase 1, Definition, focuses on understanding the mission, the environment, and the architecture in order to determine the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve accreditation. Answer A is incorrect. Phase 2, Verification, verifies the evolving or modified system's compliance with the information agreed on in the System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA). Answer B is incorrect. Phase 3 validates the compliance of a fully integrated system with the information stated in the SSAA.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Information Security management is a process of defining the security controls in order to protect information assets. The first action of a management program to implement information security is to have a security program in place. What are the objectives of a security program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Security education
- B. Security organization
- C. System classification
- D. Information classification
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
The first action of a management program to implement information security is to have a security program in place. The objectives of a security program are as follows: Protect the company and its assets Manage risks by identifying assets, discovering threats, and estimating the risk Provide direction for security activities by framing of information security policies, procedures, standards, guidelines and baselines Information classification Security organization Security education Answer C is incorrect. System classification is not one of the objectives of a security program.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application?
- A. Watermarking
- B. Encryption wrapper
- C. ESAPI
- D. Code obfuscation
Answer: C
Explanation:
ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development. Answer A is incorrect. Watermarking is the process of embedding information into software in a way that is difficult to remove. Answer C is incorrect. Encryption wrapper dynamically encrypts and decrypts all the software code at runtime. Answer D is incorrect. Code obfuscation is designed to protect code from decompilation.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this?
- A. NDA
- B. VPN
- C. LA
- D. SLA
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is a type of service-level agreement. A service-level agreement (SLA) is a negotiated agreement between two parties where one is the customer and the other is the service provider. It records a common understanding about services, priorities, responsibilities, guarantees, and warranties. Each area of service scope should have the 'level of service' defined. The SLA may specify the levels of availability, serviceability, performance, operation, or other attributes of the service, such as billing. Answer C is incorrect. Non-disclosure agreements (NDAs) are often used to protect the confidentiality of an invention as it is being evaluated by potential licensees. Answer D is incorrect. License agreements (LA) describe the rights and responsibilities of a party related to the use and exploitation of intellectual property. Answer B is incorrect. There is no such type of agreement as VPN.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Mark is the project manager of the NHQ project in StarTech Inc. The project has an asset valued at $195,000 and is subjected to an exposure factor of 35 percent. What will be the Single Loss Expectancy of the project?
- A. $72,650
- B. $67,250
- C. $68,250
- D. $92,600
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) of this project will be $68,250. Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Risk Management and Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) where the Exposure Factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. As an example, if the Asset Value is reduced two thirds, the exposure factor value is .66. If the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. The result is a monetary value in the same unit as the Single Loss Expectancy is expressed. Here, it is as follows: SLE = Asset Value * Exposure Factor = 195,000 * 0.35 = $68,250 Answer B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not valid SLE's for this project.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following elements sets up a requirement to receive the constrained requests over a protected layer connection, such as TLS (Transport Layer Security)?
- A. Accounting constraint
- B. User data constraint
- C. Authorization constraint
- D. Web resource collection
Answer: B
Explanation:
User data constraint is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification 2.4. It sets up a requirement to receive the constrained requests over a protected layer connection, such as TLS (Transport Layer Security). The user data constraint offers guarantee (NONE, INTEGRAL, and CONFEDENTIAL) for the transportation of data between client and server. If a request does not have user data constraint, the container accepts the request after it is received on a connection. Answer C is incorrect. Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer B is incorrect. Authorization constraint is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification 2.4. It sets up a requirement for authentication and names the authorization roles that can access the URL patterns and HTTP methods as defined by the security constraint. In the absence of a security constraint, the container accepts the request without requiring any user authentication. If no authorization role is specified in the authorization constraint, the container cannot access constrained requests. The wildcard character "*" specifies all authorization role names that are defined in the deployment descriptor. Answer D is incorrect. It is not a security constraint element.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following plans is documented and organized for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as part of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation?
- A. Continuity Of Operations Plan
- B. Disaster Recovery Plan
- C. Business Continuity Plan
- D. Contingency Plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Contingency plan is prepared and documented for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as the element of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and "triggers" for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer D is incorrect. A disaster recovery plan should contain data, hardware, and software that can be critical for a business. It should also include the plan for sudden loss such as hard disc crash. The business should use backup and data recovery utilities to limit the loss of data. Answer A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization's essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable. Answer B is incorrect. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan.
NEW QUESTION # 47
In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?
- A. Walk-through test
- B. Penetration test
- C. Full operational test
- D. Paper test
Answer: B
Explanation:
A penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration test is to determine feasibility of an attack and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full security audit. Answer C is incorrect. A paper test is the least complex test in the disaster recovery and business continuity testing approaches. In this test, the BCP/DRP plan documents are distributed to the appropriate managers and BCP/DRP team members for review, markup, and comment. This approach helps the auditor to ensure that the plan is complete and that all team members are familiar with their responsibilities within the plan. Answer D is incorrect. A walk-through test is an extension of the paper testing in the business continuity and disaster recovery process. In this testing methodology, appropriate managers and BCP/DRP team members discuss and walk through procedures of the plan. They also discuss the training needs, and clarification of critical plan elements. Answer A is incorrect. A full operational test includes all team members and participants in the disaster recovery and business continuity process. This full operation test involves the mobilization of personnel. It restores operations in the same manner as an outage or disaster would. The full operational test extends the preparedness test by including actual notification, mobilization of resources, processing of data, and utilization of backup media for restoration.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Elizabeth is a project manager for her organization and she finds risk management to be very difficult for her to manage. She asks you, a lead project manager, at what stage in the project will risk management become easier. What answer best resolves the difficulty of risk management practices and the effort required?
- A. Risk management only becomes easier when the project moves into project execution.
- B. Risk management only becomes easier the more often it is practiced.
- C. Risk management is an iterative process and never becomes easier.
- D. Risk management only becomes easier when the project is closed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: According to the PMBOK, "Like many things in project management, the more it is done the easier the practice becomes." AnswerB is incorrect. This answer is not the best choice for the project.
AnswerA is incorrect. Risk management likely becomes more difficult in project execution that in other
stages of the project. AnswerC is incorrect. Risk management does become easier the more often it is done.
NEW QUESTION # 49
The NIST Information Security and Privacy Advisory Board (ISPAB) paper "Perspectives on Cloud Computing and Standards" specifies potential advantages and disdvantages of virtualization. Which of the following disadvantages does it include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. It increases overall security risk shared resources.
- B. It increases capabilities for fault tolerant computing using rollback and snapshot features.
- C. It creates the possibility that remote attestation may not work.
- D. It increases intrusion detection through introspection.
- E. It increases configuration effort because of complexity and composite system.
- F. It initiates the risk that malicious software is targeting the VM environment.
- G. It involves new protection mechanisms for preventing VM escape, VM detection, and VM-VM interference.
Answer: A,C,E,F,G
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The potential security disadvantages of virtualization are as follows: It increases configuration effort because of complexity and composite system. It initiates the problem of how to prevent overlap while mapping VM storage onto host files. It introduces the problem of virtualizing the TPM. It creates the possibility that remote attestation may not work. It initiates the problem of detecting VM covert channels. It involves new protection mechanisms for preventing VM escape, VM detection, and VM-VM interference. It initiates the possibility of virtual networking configuration errors. It initiates the risk that malicious software is targeting the VM environment.
It increases overall security risk shared resources, such as networks, clipboards, clocks, printers, desktop management, and folders. Answer: A and B are incorrect. These are not the disadvantages of virtualization, as described in the NIST Information Security and Privacy Advisory Board (ISPAB) paper
"Perspectives on Cloud Computing and Standards".
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following tools is used to attack the Digital Watermarking?
- A. Steg-Only Attack
- B. 2Mosaic
- C. Active Attacks
- D. Gifshuffle
Answer: B
Explanation:
2Mosaic is a tool used for watermark breaking. It is an attack against a digital watermarking system. In this type of attack, an image is chopped into small pieces and then placed together. When this image is embedded into a web page, the web browser renders the small pieces into one image. This image looks like a real image with no watermark in it. This attack is successful, as it is impossible to read watermark in very small pieces. Answer D is incorrect. Gifshuffle is used to hide message or information inside GIF images. It is done by shuffling the colormap. This tool also provides compression and encryption. Answer B and A are incorrect. Active Attacks and Steg-Only Attacks are used to attack Steganography.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management that dictates what role security plays within the organization. What are the different types of policies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Informative
- B. Regulatory
- C. Advisory
- D. Systematic
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Following are the different types of policies: Regulatory: This type of policy ensures that the organization is following standards set by specific industry regulations. This policy type is very detailed and specific to a type of industry. This is used in financial institutions, health care facilities, public utilities, and other government-regulated industries, e.g., TRAI. Advisory: This type of policy strongly advises employees regarding which types of behaviors and activities should and should not take place within the organization. It also outlines possible ramifications if employees do not comply with the established behaviors and activities. This policy type can be used, for example, to describe how to handle medical information, handle financial transactions, or process confidential information. Informative: This type of policy informs employees of certain topics. It is not an enforceable policy, but rather one to teach individuals about specific issues relevant to the company. It could explain how the company interacts with partners, the company's goals and mission, and a general reporting structure in different situations. Answer B is incorrect. No such type of policy exists.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below: System and data are validated. System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements.
- A. Initiation
- B. Programming and training
- C. Evaluation and acceptance
- D. Definition
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is the evaluation and acceptance phase of the SDLC, which meets the following audit objectives: System and data are validated. System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements Answer D is incorrect. During the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer C is incorrect. During the definition phase, users' needs are defined and the needs are translated into requirements statements that incorporate appropriate controls. Answer B is incorrect. During the programming and training phase, the software and other components of the system are faithfully incorporated into the design specifications. Proper documentation and training are provided in this phase.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following elements of the BCP process emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan?
- A. Business impact analysis
- B. Scope and plan initiation
- C. Plan approval and implementation
- D. Business continuity plan development
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company's operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work required, listing the resources to be used, and defining the management practices to be employed. Answer C is incorrect. The business impact assessment is a method used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. Answer A is incorrect. The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer B is incorrect. The plan approval and implementation process involves creating enterprise-wide awareness of the plan, getting the final senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in. What are the different categories of penetration testing? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Partial-knowledge test
- B. Open-box
- C. Closed-box
- D. Full-box
- E. Full-knowledge test
- F. Zero-knowledge test
Answer: A,B,C,E,F
Explanation:
The different categories of penetration testing are as follows: Open-box: In this category of penetration testing, testers have access to internal system code. This mode is basically suited for Unix or Linux. Closed-box: In this category of penetration testing, testers do not have access to closed systems. This method is good for closed systems. Zero-knowledge test: In this category of penetration testing, testers have to acquire information from scratch and they are not supplied with information concerning the IT system. Partial-knowledge test: In this category of penetration testing, testers have knowledge that may be applicable to a specific type of attack and associated vulnerabilities. Full-knowledge test: In this category of penetration testing, testers have massive knowledge concerning the information system to be evaluated. Answer D is incorrect. There is no such category of penetration testing.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following scanning techniques helps to ensure that the standard software configuration is currently with the latest security patches and software, and helps to locate uncontrolled or unauthorized software?
- A. Server Scanning
- B. Workstation Scanning
- C. Discovery Scanning
- D. Port Scanning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Workstation scanning provides help to ensure that the standard software configuration exists with the most recent security patches and software. It helps to locate uncontrolled or unauthorized software. A full workstation vulnerability scan of the standard corporate desktop configuration must be implemented on a regularly basis. Answer B is incorrect. The discovery scanning technique is used to gather adequate information regarding each network device to identify what type of device it is, its operating system, and if it is running any externally vulnerable services, like Web services, FTP, or email. Answer C is incorrect. A full server vulnerability scan helps to determine if the server OS has been configured to the corporate standards and identify if applications have been updated with the latest security patches and software versions. Answer A is incorrect. Port scanning technique describes the process of sending a data packet to a port to gather information about the state of the port.
NEW QUESTION # 56
You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You want to save all the data from the SQL injection attack, which can read sensitive data from the database and modify database data using some commands, such as Insert, Update, and Delete. Which of the following tasks will you perform? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Apply maximum number of database permissions.
- B. Create parameterized stored procedures.
- C. Create parameterized queries by using bound and typed parameters.
- D. Use an encapsulated library for accessing databases.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The methods of mitigating SQL injection attacks are as follows: 1.Create parameterized queries by using bound and typed parameters. 2.Create parameterized stored procedures. 3.Use a encapsulated library in order to access databases. 4.Minimize database permissions. Answer A is incorrect. In order to save all the data from the SQL injection attack, you should minimize database permissions.
NEW QUESTION # 57
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are preparing to plan risk responses for your project with your team. How many risk response types are available for a negative risk event in the project?
- A. One
- B. Three
- C. Seven
- D. Four
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are four risk responses available for a negative risk event. The risk response strategies for negative risks are: Avoid: It involves altering the project management plan to remove the threats completely. Transfer: It requires shifting some or all of the negative effects of a threat including the ownership of response, to a third party. Mitigate: It implies a drop in the probability and impact of an unfavorable risk event to be within suitable threshold limits. Accept: It delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk occurs. It is used for both negative and positive risks. Answer C is incorrect. There are four responses for negative risk events. Answer A is incorrect. There are four, not three, responses for negative risk events. Do not forget that acceptance can be used for negative risk events. Answer B is incorrect. There are seven total risk responses, four of which can be used for negative risk events.
NEW QUESTION # 58
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