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NEW QUESTION # 284
Your company operates in a highly competitive market, with extremely high-value data assets.
Senior management wants to migrate to a cloud environment but is concerned that providers will not meet the company's security needs.
Which deployment model would probably best suit the company's needs?
Response:
- A. Community
- B. Private
- C. Hybrid
- D. Public
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 285
What type of masking strategy involves making a separate and distinct copy of data with masking in place?
- A. Static
- B. Dynamic
- C. Duplication
- D. Replication
Answer: A
Explanation:
With static masking, a separate and distinct copy of the data set is created with masking in place. This is typically done through a script or other process that takes a standard data set, processes it to mask the appropriate and predefined fields, and then outputs the data set as a new one with the completed masking done.
NEW QUESTION # 286
Which of the following best describes data masking?
Response:
- A. A method where the last few numbers in a dataset are not obscured. These are often used for authentication.
- B. A method used to protect prying eyes from data such as social security numbers and credit card data.
- C. Data masking involves stripping out all similar digits in a string of numbers so as to obscure the original number.
- D. A method for creating similar but inauthentic datasets used for software testing and user training.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 287
Which of the following is not a risk management framework?
- A. NIST SP 800-37
- B. Hex GBL
- C. ISO 31000:2009
- D. COBIT
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Hex GBL is a reference to a computer part in Terry Pratchett's fictional Discworld universe. The rest are not.
NEW QUESTION # 288
Within a federated identity system, which of the following would you be MOST likely to use for sending information for consumption by a relying party?
- A. SAML
- B. HTML
- C. WS-Federation
- D. XML
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the most widely used method for encoding and sending attributes and other information from an identity provider to a relying party.WS- Federation, which is used by Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS), is the second most used method for sending information to a relying party, but it is not a better choice than SAML.
XML is similar to SAML in the way it encodes and labels data, but it does not have all of the required extensions that SAML does. HTML is not used within federated systems at all.
NEW QUESTION # 289
What is the data encapsulation used with the SOAP protocol referred to?
- A. Object
- B. Envelope
- C. Payload
- D. Packet
Answer: B
Explanation:
Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) encapsulates its information in what is known as a SOAP envelope and then leverages common communications protocols for transmission.
NEW QUESTION # 290
In order to comply with regulatory requirements, which of the following secure erasure methods would be available to a cloud customer using volume storage within the IaaS service model?
- A. Cryptographic erasure
- B. Degaussing
- C. Demagnetizing
- D. Shredding
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cryptographic erasure is a secure method to destroy data by destroying the keys that were used to encrypt it. This method is universally available for volume storage on IaaS and is also extremely quick.
Shredding, degaussing, and demagnetizing are all physically destructive methods that would not be permitted within a cloud environment using shared resources.
NEW QUESTION # 291
Who would be responsible for implementing IPsec to secure communications for an application?
- A. Cloud customer
- B. Auditors
- C. Developers
- D. Systems staff
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Because IPsec is implemented at the system or network level, it is the responsibility of the systems staff. IPsec removes the responsibility from developers, whereas other technologies such as TLS would be implemented by developers.
NEW QUESTION # 292
Which of the cloud deployment models offers the easiest initial setup and access for the cloud customer?
- A. Private
- B. Public
- C. Community
- D. Hybrid
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the public cloud model is available to everyone, in most instances all a customer will need to do to gain access is set up an account and provide a credit card number through the service's web portal. No additional contract negotiations, agreements, or specific group memberships are typically needed to get started.
NEW QUESTION # 293
When an organization is considering the use of cloud services for BCDR planning and solutions, which of the following cloud concepts would be the most important?
- A. Interoperability
- B. Elasticity
- C. Portability
- D. Reversibility
Answer: C
Explanation:
Portability is the ability for a service or system to easily move among different cloud providers.
This is essential for using a cloud solution for BCDR because vendor lock-in would inhibit easily moving and setting up services in the event of a disaster, or it would necessitate a large number of configuration or component changes to implement. Interoperability, or the ability to reuse components for other services or systems, would not be an important factor for BCDR.
Reversibility, or the ability to remove all data quickly and completely from a cloud environment, would be important at the end of a disaster, but would not be important during setup and deployment. Elasticity, or the ability to resize resources to meet current demand, would be very beneficial to a BCDR situation, but not as vital as portability.
NEW QUESTION # 294
Which of the following terms is NOT a commonly used category of risk acceptance?
- A. Accepted
- B. Critical
- C. Minimal
- D. Moderate
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Accepted is not a risk acceptance category. The risk acceptance categories are minimal, low, moderate, high, and critical.
NEW QUESTION # 295
Maintenance mode requires all of these actions except:
- A. Prevent new logins
- B. Initiate enhanced security controls
- C. Ensure logging continues
- D. Remove all active production instances
Answer: B
Explanation:
While the other answers are all steps in moving from normal operations to maintenance mode, we do not necessarily initiate any enhanced security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 296
Which aspect of security is DNSSEC designed to ensure?
- A. Availability
- B. Confidentiality
- C. Authentication
- D. Integrity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
DNSSEC is a security extension to the regular DNS protocol and services that allows for the validation of the integrity of DNS lookups. It does not address confidentiality or availability at all. It allows for a DNS client to perform DNS lookups and validate both their origin and authority via the cryptographic signature that accompanies the DNS response.
NEW QUESTION # 297
Which of the following areas of responsibility always falls completely under the purview of the cloud provider, regardless of which cloud service category is used?
- A. Infrastructure
- B. Physical
- C. Governance
- D. Data
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regardless of the cloud service category used, the physical environment is always the sole responsibility of the cloud provider. In many instances, the cloud provider will supply audit reports or some general information about their physical security practices, especially to those customers or potential customers that may have regulatory requirements, but otherwise the cloud customer will have very little insight into the physical environment. With IaaS, the infrastructure is a shared responsibility between the cloud provider and cloud customer. With all cloud service categories, the data and governance are always the sole responsibility of the cloud customer.
NEW QUESTION # 298
Which of the following is NOT a regulatory system from the United States federal government?
- A. FISMA
- B. HIPAA
- C. SOX
- D. PCI DSS
Answer: D
Explanation:
The payment card industry data security standard (PCI DSS) pertains to organizations that handle credit card transactions and is an industry regulatory standard, not a governmental one.
NEW QUESTION # 299
Which approach is typically the most efficient method to use for data discovery?
- A. Labels
- B. Content analysis
- C. ACLs
- D. Metadata
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Metadata is data about data. It contains information about the type of data, how it is stored and organized, or information about its creation and use.
NEW QUESTION # 300
Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references to internal information and configurations in code that is exposed to the client?
- A. Insecure direct object references
- B. Unvalidated redirect and forwards
- C. Sensitive data exposure
- D. Security misconfiguration
Answer: A
Explanation:
An insecure direct object reference occurs when a developer has in their code a reference to something on the application side, such as a database key, the directory structure of the application, configuration information about the hosting system, or any other information that pertains to the workings of the application that should not be exposed to users or the network. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware of phishing attacks. Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data.
Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner.
NEW QUESTION # 301
BCDR strategies do not typically involve the entire operations of an organization, but only those deemed critical to their business.
Which concept pertains to the amount of services that need to be recovered to meet BCDR objectives?
- A. SRE
- B. RSL
- C. RTO
- D. RPO
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The recovery service level (RSL) measures the percentage of operations that would be recovered during a BCDR situation. The recovery point objective (RPO) sets and defines the amount of data an organization must have available or accessible to reach the determined level of operations necessary during a BCDR situation.
The recovery time objective (RTO) measures the amount of time necessary to recover operations to meet the BCDR plan. SRE is provided as an erroneous response.
NEW QUESTION # 302
Which of the following are the storage types associated with IaaS?
- A. Object and target
- B. Volume and object
- C. Volume and container
- D. Volume and label
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 303
In order to comply with regulatory requirements, which of the following secure erasure methods would be available to a cloud customer using volume storage within the IaaS service model?
- A. Cryptographic erasure
- B. Degaussing
- C. Demagnetizing
- D. Shredding
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cryptographic erasure is a secure method to destroy data by destroying the keys that were used to encrypt it.
This method is universally available for volume storage on IaaS and is also extremely quick. Shredding, degaussing, and demagnetizing are all physically destructive methods that would not be permitted within a cloud environment using shared resources.
NEW QUESTION # 304
Which of the following tasks within a SaaS environment would NOT be something the cloud customer would be responsible for?
- A. User access
- B. Branding
- C. Authentication mechanism
- D. Training
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The authentication mechanisms and implementations are the responsibility of the cloud provider because they are core components of the application platform and service. Within a SaaS implementation, the cloud customer will provision user access, deploy branding to the application interface (typically), and provide or procure training for its users.
NEW QUESTION # 305
Which cloud service category most commonly uses client-side key management systems?
- A. Platform as a Service
- B. Software as a Service
- C. Desktop as a Service
- D. Infrastructure as a Service
Answer: B
Explanation:
SaaS most commonly uses client-side key management. With this type of implementation, the software for doing key management is supplied by the cloud provider, but is hosted and run by the cloud customer. This allows for full integration with the SaaS implementation, but also provides full control to the cloud customer.
Although the cloud provider may offer software for performing key management to the cloud customers, with the Infrastructure, Platform, and Desktop as a Service categories, the customers would largely be responsible for their own options and implementations and would not be bound by the offerings from the cloud provider.
NEW QUESTION # 306
One of the main components of system audits is the ability to track changes over time and to match these changes with continued compliance and internal processes.
Which aspect of cloud computing makes this particular component more challenging than in a traditional data center?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Elasticity
- C. Resource pooling
- D. Portability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud services make exclusive use of virtualization, and systems change over time, including the addition, subtraction, and reimaging of virtual machines. It is extremely unlikely that the exact same virtual machines and images used in a previous audit would still be in use or even available for a later audit, making the tracking of changes over time extremely difficult, or even impossible. Elasticity refers to the ability to add and remove resources from a system or service to meet current demand, and although it plays a factor in making the tracking of virtual machines very difficult over time, it is not the best answer in this case.
Resource pooling pertains to a cloud environment sharing a large amount of resources between different customers and services. Portability refers to the ability to move systems or services easily between different cloud providers.
NEW QUESTION # 307
What is the only data format permitted with the SOAP API?
- A. SAML
- B. HTML
- C. XML
- D. XSML
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SOAP protocol only supports the XML data format.
NEW QUESTION # 308
Upon completing a risk analysis, a company has four different approaches to addressing risk. Which approach it takes will be based on costs, available options, and adherence to any regulatory requirements from independent audits.
Which of the following groupings correctly represents the four possible approaches?
- A. Accept, avoid, transfer, mitigate
- B. Accept, dismiss, transfer, mitigate
- C. Accept, deny, mitigate, revise
- D. Accept, deny, transfer, mitigate
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The four possible approaches to risk are as follows: accept (do not patch and continue with the risk), avoid (implement solutions to prevent the risk from occurring), transfer (take out insurance), and mitigate (change configurations or patch to resolve the risk). Each of these answers contains at least one incorrect approach name.
NEW QUESTION # 309
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