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MRCPUK SEND Exam Syllabus Topics:

MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) Sample Questions:

1. A 54-year-old man was referred from the urology department with erectile dysfunction.
On examination, he had normal secondary sexual characteristics. Testicular volume was
estimated at 15 mL bilaterally.
Investigations:
random plasma glucose8.0 mmol/L
serum testosterone8.1 nmol/L (9.0-35.0) plasma follicle-stimulating hormone3.4 U/L (1.0-7.0) plasma luteinising hormone4.7 U/L (1.0-10.0) serum prolactin410 mU/L (<360)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) fasting plasma glucose
B) prescribe testosterone replacement
C) check for macroprolactinaemia
D) prescribe sildenafil
E) serum testosterone (09.00 h)

2. An 18-year-old woman was found to have a blood pressure of 164/102 mmHg at a preemployment medical examination. She gave no family history of hypertension. On enquiry, she said that she had not yet started to menstruate.
On initial clinical examination, she appeared well. She was 1.72 m tall (>90th centile) and had a body mass index of 22 kg/m2 (18-25). There was no evidence of axillary hair, and pubic hair was scanty (Tanner stage 1). Breast development was immature (Tanner stage 1).
Investigations:
serum sodium142 mmol/L (137-144)
serum potassium2.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
serum urea4.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.0)
serum creatinine102 umol/L (60-110)
estimated glomerular filtration rate (MDRD)>60 mL/min/1.73 m2 (>60)
plasma renin activity (after 30 min supine)1.0 pmol/mL/h (1.1-2.7)
plasma aldosterone (after 30 min supine)125 pmol/L (135-400)
serum cortisol (09.00 h)190 nmol/L (200-700)
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A) deoxycorticosterone-secreting adrenal tumour
B) adrenal 17-hydroxylase deficiency
C) 11-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2 deficiency
D) adrenal 11-hydroxylase deficiency
E) adrenal 21-hydroxylase deficiency

3. A 33-year-old man was referred to the diabetes clinic with an 8-month history of weight loss and polydipsia. Two months previously his general practitioner had found a high fasting plasma glucose concentration of 17.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and a haemoglobin A1c of 116 mmol/mol (20-42). The patient was taking metformin 1 g twice daily. He reported in the diabetes clinic that his home capillary blood glucose concentrations persisted to be high, ranging between 15-24 mmol/L.
On examination, his body mass index was 23 kg/m2 (18-25).
His blood tests were repeated in the diabetes clinic and he was treated with a basal bolus insulin regimen. Urinalysis was negative for ketones.
Investigations (in diabetes clinic):
haemoglobin A1c110 mmol/mol (20-42)
serum C-peptide200 pmol/L (180-360)
anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
antibodies69 IU/mL (<10)
anti-IA2 antibodiesnegative
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) haemochromatosis
B) type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) mitochondrial diabetes mellitus
D) maturity-onset diabetes of the young
E) latent autoimmune diabetes in adults

4. A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus was admitted to hospital with a 12-hour
history of nausea and lethargy.
On examination, her temperature was 37.5C, she was dehydrated and her Glasgow coma
score was 14. Urinalysis showed glucose 2+, ketones 3+, protein negative.
Investigations:
white cell count12.0 ? 109/L (4.0-11.0)
neutrophil count8.0 ? 109/L (1.5-7.0)
random plasma glucose22.0 mmol/L
arterial blood gases, breathing air:
pH7.20 (7.35-7.45)
serum C-reactive protein12 mg/L (<10)
She was treated with intravenous sodium chloride 0.9% and fixed-rate intravenous insulin
infusion, and initially improved. Twelve hours into her admission, she complained of a
headache.
On examination, her temperature was 37.3C and her Glasgow coma score was 15. Her
pulse was 85 beats per minute and her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg. There was no
neck stiffness, papilloedema or focal neurological signs.
What is the most likely cause for her headache?

A) tension headache
B) viral encephalitis
C) cerebral oedema
D) bacterial meningitis
E) sagittal sinus thrombosis

5. An 18-year-old woman was referred by her general practitioner for further investigation of "funny turns" during which she developed palpitations, sweating, tremor, hunger, anxiety and paraesthesiae; all of these symptoms were relieved immediately by a sugary drink. She was otherwise well and was not taking any regular medication. There was a family history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. A spontaneous hypoglycaemic episode had not been captured and she was admitted to the diabetes/endocrine ward for a 72-hour fast. Her renal function was normal.
After a 12-hour fast she experienced her typical symptoms. Urinalysis showed no urinary ketones.
Investigations after 12-h fast:
fasting plasma glucose 2.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
plasma insulin56 pmol/L (<21 after hypoglycaemia)
serum C-peptide514 pmol/L (180-360)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) request a urinary sulphonylurea screen on sample obtained during the fast
B) obtain a careful history looking for access to exogenous insulin
C) MR scan of pancreas to localise an insulinoma
D) coeliac axis angiography
E) MR scan of abdomen and pelvis to localise a mesenchymal tumour producing insulin-like growth factor 2

Solutions: