Certified Healthcare Facility Manager (CHFM) certification exam Practice Tests 2026 | Pass CHFM with confidence!
Practice Medical Professional Exams CHFM exam. Online Exam Practice Tests with detailed explanations!
NEW QUESTION # 50
The occupants of a building wing complain of nausea, dizziness, or drowsiness. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. mercury spill
- B. insufficient outside air
- C. medical gas leak
- D. humidity levels
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Symptoms such as nausea, dizziness, headaches, and drowsiness are commonly associated with poor indoor air quality (IAQ). The most likely cause in this case is insufficient outside air ventilation, which allows buildup of carbon dioxide and other indoor contaminants.
* Correct Answer (C. insufficient outside air): According to ASHRAE Standard 62.1 (Ventilation for Acceptable Indoor Air Quality) and referenced in NFPA 99 Health Care Facilities Code, inadequate outside air results in occupant discomfort and health complaints known as "sick building syndrome."
* Incorrect Options:
* A. mercury spill: Causes more acute, localized toxic exposure symptoms; less likely across an entire wing unless a large spill occurred (and it would be unusual in general occupancy areas).
* B. humidity levels: Low or high humidity can cause discomfort, but not typically dizziness or drowsiness.
* D. medical gas leak: Could cause similar symptoms depending on the gas, but would typically trigger alarms and affect specific zones tied to gas lines, not general wing-wide complaints.
Relevance to CHFM:
This question relates to the Compliance and Maintenance & Operations domains. CHFM professionals must ensure compliance with ventilation codes (ASHRAE 62.1, NFPA 99, Joint Commission EC standards) and manage HVAC systems to maintain proper indoor air quality, protecting patient and staff health.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following represents the average power consumed by a single-phase electric motor?
- A. amps / PF
- B. kW x PF / 1,000
- C. KVA x PF
- D. KVA / PF
Answer: C
Explanation:
For electrical systems, real power (kW) is obtained by multiplying apparent power (kVA) by the power factor (PF):
kW = kVA × PF
This formula gives the average power consumed by a single-phase motor.
C). KVA × PF (Correct): Standard power equation for real power.
A). KVA / PF: Incorrect; dividing by PF would increase kVA, not convert to kW.
B). kW × PF / 1,000: Incorrect; kW already accounts for PF, and the division by 1,000 is irrelevant here.
D). amps / PF: Incomplete and not dimensionally correct.
References:
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Maintenance and Operations domain (electrical fundamentals).
NFPA 70: National Electrical Code (NEC) - Basic power calculation rules.
ASHE/CHFM study materials on motor loads and electrical systems.
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NEW QUESTION # 52
The following information is available:
Which building has the best overall building condition?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
To evaluate overall building condition, the Facility Condition Index (FCI) is commonly used. FCI = Deferred Maintenance ÷ Current Replacement Value. A lower FCI indicates better building condition (less deferred maintenance relative to value).
* Building 1: 1,200,000 ÷ 25,000,000 = 0.048
* Building 2: 200,000 ÷ 2,500,000 = 0.080
* Building 3: 25,000 ÷ 600,000 = 0.0417
* Building 4: 900,000 ÷ 10,000,000 = 0.090
Building 3 has the lowest FCI (0.0417), which means it has the least deferred maintenance compared to its value and therefore is in the best overall condition.
Incorrect Options:
* Building 1 (0.048) - Good, but not the lowest.
* Building 2 (0.080) - Higher FCI means poorer condition.
* Building 4 (0.090) - Highest FCI of the group.
References:
American Hospital Association (AHA) - CHFM Candidate Handbook: Financial Management domain includes understanding of life-cycle costing, budgeting, and facility condition assessment metrics such as FCI.
ASHE/AHA Guidance: Managing the Facility Portfolio - Defines FCI and its use in capital planning.
CHFM Exam Preparation Guide: Topics include evaluating building condition indices and prioritizing maintenance.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A primary-secondary chilled water system typically has variable volume pumping on the
- A. primary loop.
- B. secondary loop.
- C. cooling tower loop.
- D. open loop.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a primary-secondary chilled water system, the primary loop is constant volume, supplying chilled water from the chiller plant. The secondary loop uses variable volume pumping to match distribution system load demand efficiently.
A). Secondary loop (Correct): Where variable flow is applied.
B). Open loop: Not a recognized term in this context.
C). Primary loop: Constant flow design.
D). Cooling tower loop: Separate condenser water system, not chilled water distribution.
References:
ASHRAE Handbook - HVAC Systems and Equipment.
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Maintenance and Operations (HVAC).
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NEW QUESTION # 54
The occupants of a building wing complain of nausea, dizziness, or drowsiness. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. mercury spill
- B. insufficient outside air
- C. medical gas leak
- D. humidity levels
Answer: B
Explanation:
Symptoms of nausea, dizziness, and drowsiness are typical of poor indoor air quality (IAQ), most often due to insufficient outside air ventilation leading to buildup of carbon dioxide or other contaminants.
C). Insufficient outside air (Correct).
A). Mercury spill: Causes neurological issues but less common in general building complaints.
B). Humidity levels: Can cause discomfort but not acute dizziness/nausea.
D). Medical gas leak: Hazardous, but would usually trigger alarms and involve smaller affected areas (not whole wing complaints).
References:
ASHRAE 62.1: Ventilation for Acceptable Indoor Air Quality.
The Joint Commission, EC standards - IAQ and ventilation requirements.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Maintenance and Operations domain.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A "WAGD" outlet would typically be found in the
- A. laundry room.
- B. operating room.
- C. electrical closet.
- D. boiler room.
Answer: B
Explanation:
"WAGD" stands for Waste Anesthetic Gas Disposal. These outlets are installed in operating rooms to remove excess anesthetic gases exhaled by patients or escaping from anesthesia equipment. The purpose is to maintain staff safety and compliance with NFPA 99 (Health Care Facilities Code), which requires WAGD systems in anesthetizing locations.
Correct (D): Operating rooms require WAGD outlets as part of medical gas and vacuum systems.
Incorrect:
A). boiler room: No patient care; WAGD outlets are not relevant.
B). electrical closet: For electrical equipment only, no medical gases.
C). laundry room: Handles linens, not anesthetic gas removal.
References:
NFPA 99: Health Care Facilities Code - Requirements for WAGD systems in anesthetizing locations.
AHA/CHFM Study Outline - Maintenance and Operations domain covering utility and gas systems.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A measured carbon dioxide level of 1,500 ppm in an area of a facility may indicate
- A. vehicular exhaust entering the area.
- B. lack of outside air.
- C. air exchange rates are within design.
- D. humidity/dewpoint problems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Acceptable indoor CO# concentrations in healthcare facilities are generally expected to remain below 1,000 ppm, as recommended by ASHRAE Standard 62.1 (Ventilation for Acceptable Indoor Air Quality). A reading of 1,500 ppm typically signals inadequate ventilation and insufficient outside air being introduced into the space. This is a direct indicator of poor dilution of indoor contaminants.
Correct: Lack of outside air (C) - High CO# concentrations are directly linked to reduced outside air supply.
Incorrect:
A). Within design - Not correct, since 1,500 ppm exceeds design thresholds.
B). Vehicular exhaust - Would raise CO and NOx levels, not primarily CO#.
D). Humidity/dewpoint - Unrelated to CO# measurement.
References:
ASHRAE 62.1: Ventilation for Acceptable Indoor Air Quality.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Maintenance and Operations domain: ventilation standards.
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NEW QUESTION # 57
According to Appendix A for CMS 482.41(c)(2), a facility manager can meet the regulatory requirements for elevator equipment management by documenting inspection, testing, and
- A. cleaning.
- B. recalls.
- C. repairs.
- D. maintenance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
CMS Condition of Participation 482.41(c)(2) requires hospitals to ensure that elevator equipment is routinely inspected, tested, and maintained. Appendix A to this regulation clarifies that documentation of these three elements demonstrates compliance.
Correct (C): Maintenance - Inspections and testing alone are insufficient; ongoing maintenance must be documented.
Incorrect:
A). recalls: Not part of CMS 482.41(c)(2).
B). cleaning: While important, cleaning is not listed as a compliance requirement.
D). repairs: Only performed when problems are found; maintenance is the proactive required element.
References:
CMS State Operations Manual, Appendix A - Interpretive Guidelines for 42 CFR 482.41(c)(2).
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain references to CMS physical environment regulations.
NEW QUESTION # 58
According to The Joint Commission Emergency Management Standards, a facility must
- A. maintain inventories of critical supplies in sufficient quantities to maintain operations for 96 hours.
- B. evaluate capabilities and response efforts for the organization to maintain operations for 96 hours.
- C. establish agreements with utility, equipment, and supply vendors to provide support in order to maintain operations for 96 hours.
- D. provide utilities, equipment, and supplies in order to maintain operations for 96 hours.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Joint Commission Emergency Management Standards require organizations to evaluate their capabilities and plan for how they would maintain operations during an emergency for up to 96 hours. This does not mandate stockpiling or guaranteeing resources for that duration, but rather ensuring that the facility has assessed its resources, strategies, and agreements to maintain patient care and safety during prolonged emergency conditions.
Incorrect Options:
A and B: Maintaining actual supplies/utilities for 96 hours is not specifically required.
C: Agreements with vendors may be part of the plan but are not the mandated standard.
References:
The Joint Commission: Emergency Management (EM) Standards - 96-hour sustainment requirement.
AHA/ASHE CHFM Review Materials - Compliance domain: Emergency preparedness and response.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain outlines emergency management as a tested area.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following must be considered at the schematic design stage?
- A. equipment specifications
- B. general conditions
- C. egress requirements
- D. lighting fixtures
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the schematic design phase, the design team establishes overall building configuration, circulation, and code-driven life safety concepts, including means of egress. Life Safety Code requirements (occupant loads, exit access, number and arrangement of exits, travel distances) are fundamental constraints that shape the plan early; they must be set before moving into design development where specific fixtures and detailed equipment specifications are finalized. Contract "general conditions" are part of procurement/contract documents later, not schematic design.
References:
AIA, Architect's Handbook of Professional Practice (Programming and Schematic Design-code and egress framework).
NFPA 101, Life Safety Code (fundamentals of means of egress).
AHA/ASHE CHFM Study Resources - Planning, Design, and Construction domain.
NEW QUESTION # 60
The process of establishing a standard of reference and comparing a business function, activity, product, or enterprise as a whole against that standard is which of the following types of analyses?
- A. continuous quality improvement
- B. performance data
- C. benchmarking
- D. performance improvement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Benchmarking is the structured process of setting a reference standard (internal or external) and comparing an organization's processes, outputs, or outcomes against that standard to identify performance gaps and opportunities for improvement. In CHFM practice, benchmarking supports administrative decision-making for staffing, service levels, utility performance, and cost metrics by aligning results to recognized peer or industry standards.
References:
American Hospital Association (AHA), CHFM Candidate Handbook - Administration domain (performance measurement and benchmarking concepts).
ASHE/AHA study resources - Benchmarking methods for healthcare facilities operations.
NEW QUESTION # 61
According to NFPA 70, what is the minimum working clearance required for enclosed electrical equipment with 600 volts or less?
- A. 24 in.
- B. 48 in.
- C. 18 in.
- D. 36 in.
Answer: D
Explanation:
NFPA 70 (NEC) Article 110.26(A)(1) establishes the depth of working space in front of electrical equipment.
For systems 0-150 volts to ground, the minimum depth is 3 ft (36 in.); for 151-600 volts, the required depth is 3-4 ft depending on the condition (exposed live parts and grounded surfaces). In healthcare facilities, unless a more stringent "condition" applies, the baseline minimum clearance encountered for 600 V or less is 36 inches.
References:
NFPA 70, National Electrical Code, Article 110.26(A)(1) Working Space-Depth.
American Hospital Association (AHA), CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain (electrical code application).
NEW QUESTION # 62
A diesel emergency generator is rated at 500 KVA. When the generator is tested, the load on it is 220 KVA.
According to the NFPA, the MINIMUM testing requirements are to run the unit
- A. annually with supplemental loads for 2 hours.
- B. monthly until the water temperature and oil pressure have stabilized.
- C. annually with supplemental loads for 30 minutes.
- D. monthly under load for 30 minutes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
NFPA 110 (Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems) requires that emergency generators be tested monthly under load. If the available load is less than 30% of the generator's nameplate rating, the test may be conducted until operating parameters (water temperature, oil pressure) stabilize. For longer durations, supplemental loading or load bank testing applies, but the minimum standard is monthly operation until systems stabilize.
Reference: NFPA 110 (2010), Section 8.4.2.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Fire doors used within a means of egress shall be
- A. metal with vision panels.
- B. magnetically held open and labeled.
- C. self-closing and positive latching.
- D. self-closing and smoke tight.
Answer: C
Explanation:
NFPA 80 (Standard for Fire Doors and Other Opening Protectives) and NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code) both require that fire doors in a means of egress must be self-closing and equipped with a positive-latching device.
This ensures that the door will automatically return to the closed position and latch securely to prevent fire and smoke from spreading through the egress path.
A: Doors can be held open magnetically only when connected to the fire alarm system, but the essential code requirement is positive latching.
B: Materials and vision panels are not universal requirements.
D: Smoke-tight doors are required in smoke barriers, not all egress fire doors.
References: NFPA 80; NFPA 101, Section 7.2.1.8.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A hospital will purchase builder risk insurance to address which of the following?
- A. payment to subcontractors in the event the prime contractor fails to pay subcontractors
- B. replacement or repair value of a damaged structure
- C. medical costs in the event a worker gets hurt on a construction site
- D. liability caused by general contractor default
Answer: B
Explanation:
Builder's risk insurance is first-party property insurance that covers physical loss to the work under construction, including the replacement or repair value of a structure and materials during the construction period. It does not provide workers' compensation (A), payment bond protection for subcontractors (B), or performance/contractor default liability (D). Those are separate coverages (workers' comp, payment bond, performance bond).
References:
AIA A201 General Conditions; AIA Insurance and Bonds exhibits (scope of builder's risk).
AHA/ASHE CHFM Study Resources - Construction risk and insurance basics.
NEW QUESTION # 65
In order to ensure a safe environment for patients, what department must be involved during the planning of all construction projects?
- A. Information Technology
- B. Infection Control
- C. Biomedical Engineering
- D. Patient Services
Answer: B
Explanation:
All construction and renovation projects in healthcare must include Infection Control Risk Assessment (ICRA). Infection Control professionals assess potential risks such as dust, ventilation disruptions, and waterborne hazards during construction. They ensure patient safety through control measures (barriers, negative pressure, monitoring).
D). Infection Control (Correct): Mandatory involvement in construction planning.
A). IT / B. Biomed / C. Patient Services: May participate but are not mandated by TJC and CDC requirements for ICRA.
References:
CDC Guidelines for Environmental Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities.
The Joint Commission, Environment of Care and Infection Prevention Standards.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Planning, Design, and Construction domain.
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NEW QUESTION # 66
When performing an in-house renovation project in a dietitian's office, members of the project coordination team should include
- A. housekeeping and security.
- B. information technologies and finance.
- C. infection prevention and safety.
- D. interior designer and supply chain.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Any renovation project in a healthcare environment-even in non-clinical spaces like a dietitian's office- requires evaluation of infection control and safety hazards. The Infection Control Risk Assessment (ICRA) process, supported by The Joint Commission and Facility Guidelines Institute (FGI) standards, mandates involvement of infection prevention and safety personnel in planning.
Correct (D): Ensures compliance with infection prevention standards and staff/patient safety during renovation.
Incorrect:
A). housekeeping and security: Important for support but not primary coordinators.
B). interior designer and supply chain: Handle design and material procurement, but not regulatory compliance.
C). information technologies and finance: Important in certain projects, but not relevant for infection/safety planning.
References:
Facility Guidelines Institute (FGI) Guidelines - Renovation planning includes infection control considerations.
The Joint Commission (EC and IC standards) - Requirement for ICRA involvement during construction
/renovation.
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Planning, Design and Construction domain.
Healthcare Facility Maintenance Management Expert said:
NEW QUESTION # 67
Engineering controls required by the CDC for TB isolation rooms include
- A. negative air pressure of rooms.
- B. use of personal protective equipment.
- C. respirator fit testing of engineering employees.
- D. engineering departmental policies and procedures.
Answer: A
Explanation:
CDC Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Health-Care Facilities (1994, reaffirmed in later updates) require negative pressure isolation rooms as a primary engineering control.
This ensures airflow moves into the room and is exhausted to the outside or through HEPA filtration. PPE and respirator fit testing are administrative or personal controls, not engineering.
References: CDC Guidelines for TB Control; NFPA 99; ASHRAE 170.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Fire drills in healthcare occupancies shall include the
- A. evacuation of bedridden and infirmed patients to the adjacent smoke compartment.
- B. evacuation of patients to areas of refuge and evacuation of staff from the building.
- C. transmission of the fire alarm signal and simulation of emergency fire conditions.
- D. transmission of a fire alarm signal and audible alarms on each shift.
Answer: C
Explanation:
NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code, Chapter 18/19.7.1.4) requires healthcare fire drills to include transmission of the fire alarm signal and a simulation of emergency fire conditions, ensuring staff are trained to carry out emergency duties. Full evacuation of patients is not required during drills.
References: NFPA 101, Sections 18/19.7.1.4; The Joint Commission EOC standards.
NEW QUESTION # 69
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